NEET Full-Length Mock Test 7

NEET Mock Test - 2026

Test 7

Number Of Questions: 180

Time: 3 hours

Correct answer Carries: 4.

Wrong Answer Carries: -1.

3:00:00

Physics

A conductor has a resistivity of \( 6 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{m} \) and \( \alpha = 4 \times 10^{-3} \, ^\circ\text{C}^{-1} \) at \( 20^\circ \text{C} \). What is its resistivity at \( 90^\circ \text{C} \)?

Use: \( \rho_t = \rho_0 [1 + \alpha (T - T_0)] \).

Substitute: \( \rho_t = 6 \times 10^{-8} [1 + 4 \times 10^{-3} (90 - 20)] \).

Calculate: \( \rho_t = 6 \times 10^{-8} [1 + 0.28] = 6 \times 10^{-8} \times 1.28 = 7.68 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{m} \).

\( 7.2 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{m} \)
\( 7.5 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{m} \)
\( 7.68 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{m} \)
\( 8.0 \times 10^{-8} \, \Omega \text{m} \)
3

A solenoid of 900 turns/m and area 0.015 m² has \( \mu_r = 2 \). What is its self-inductance? (\( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{H/m} \))

\( L = \mu_r \mu_0 n^2 A l \), assume \( l = 1 \, \text{m} \).

\( L = 2 \times 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times (900)^2 \times 0.015 \times 1 = 0.0305 \, \text{H} \approx 0.03 \, \text{H} \).

0.02 H
0.025 H
0.03 H
0.035 H
3

Why does the interference pattern disappear if the phase difference between two sources changes rapidly over time?

Rapid phase changes make the sources incoherent, averaging out the interference effects, resulting in a uniform intensity distribution.

Amplitude becomes zero
Sources become incoherent
Wavelength increases
Frequency decreases
2

A circular coil of 45 turns and radius \( 6 \, \text{cm} \) carries a current of \( 1.2 \, \text{A} \). What is the magnetic field at its center? (\( \mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m/A} \))

Magnetic field \( B = \frac{\mu_0 N I}{2 R} \).

\( B = \frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 45 \times 1.2}{2 \times 0.06} = \frac{21.6 \pi \times 10^{-6}}{0.12} = 1.8 \pi \times 10^{-4} \approx 5.65 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{T} \).

5.65 × 10⁻⁴ T
2.83 × 10⁻⁴ T
1.13 × 10⁻³ T
8.48 × 10⁻⁴ T
1

A \( 5 \, \text{kg} \) particle moves with velocity \( \mathbf{v} = 4 \, \hat{\mathbf{i}} \, \text{m/s} \) at \( \mathbf{r} = -3 \, \hat{\mathbf{j}} \, \text{m} \). What is the magnitude of its angular momentum about the origin?

\( \mathbf{L} = \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{p} = \begin{vmatrix} \hat{\mathbf{i}} & \hat{\mathbf{j}} & \hat{\mathbf{k}} \\ 0 & -3 & 0 \\ 4 & 0 & 0 \end{vmatrix} = \hat{\mathbf{k}} (0 \times 0 - (-3) \times 4) = 12 \, \hat{\mathbf{k}} \, \text{kg m}^2/\text{s} \).

Magnitude = \( 12 \, \text{kg m}^2/\text{s} \).

10 kg m²/s
12 kg m²/s
14 kg m²/s
16 kg m²/s
2

Check the dimensional consistency of \( E = \frac{F^2 t^2}{m} \), where \( E \) is energy, \( F \) is force, \( t \) is time, and \( m \) is mass.

LHS: \( [E] = [M L^2 T^{-2}] \).

RHS: \( [F^2 t^2 / m] = [M L T^{-2}]^2 [T]^2 / [M] = [M^2 L^2 T^{-4}] [T^2] / [M] = [M L^2 T^{-2}] \).

Consistent.

Consistent
Inconsistent
Partially consistent
Cannot determine
1

A flat coil is placed in a magnetic field that decreases with time. The direction of the induced current is such that it produces a magnetic field in which direction?

Lenz’s law dictates that the induced current opposes the decrease in flux by producing a magnetic field in the same direction as the original field.

Perpendicular to the original field
Opposite to the original field
Random direction
Same as the original field
4

In a full-wave rectifier, the number of diodes typically used with a centre-tap transformer is:

A full-wave rectifier with a centre-tap transformer uses two diodes, each conducting during alternate half-cycles, to rectify both positive and negative halves of the AC input.

1
3
4
2
4

At absolute zero (0 K), an intrinsic semiconductor behaves as:

At 0 K, no thermal energy is available to excite electrons across the energy gap, so an intrinsic semiconductor has no free carriers and acts like an insulator.

Conductor
Semiconductor
Insulator
Superconductor
3

A \( 15 \, \text{V} \) battery with \( 1 \, \Omega \) internal resistance delivers a current of \( 2.5 \, \text{A} \) to a resistor. What is the resistance of the resistor?

Terminal voltage: \( V = \varepsilon - I r = 15 - 2.5 \times 1 = 12.5 \, \text{V} \).

Resistance: \( R = \frac{V}{I} = \frac{12.5}{2.5} = 5 \, \Omega \).

\( 4.0 \, \Omega \)
\( 4.5 \, \Omega \)
\( 5.0 \, \Omega \)
\( 5.5 \, \Omega \)
3

What is the SI unit of a physical quantity with dimensional formula \( [L T^{-2} K^{-1}] \) using only base units?

Base units: \( [L] = \text{m} \), \( [T] = \text{s} \), \( [K] = \text{K} \).

\( [L T^{-2} K^{-1}] = \text{m s}^{-2} \text{K}^{-1} \).

m s² K
m s⁻² K⁻¹
m² s⁻² K⁻¹
m s⁻¹ K⁻¹
2

A \( 2 \, \text{kg} \) ball moving at \( 6 \, \text{m/s} \) collides elastically with a stationary \( 4 \, \text{kg} \) ball. What is the speed of the \( 4 \, \text{kg} \) ball after collision?

For elastic collision: \( v_{2f} = \frac{2 m_1}{m_1 + m_2} v_{1i} = \frac{2 \times 2}{2 + 4} \times 6 = \frac{4}{6} \times 6 = 4 \, \text{m/s} \).

3 m/s
4 m/s
5 m/s
6 m/s
2

Which modulus describes a material’s resistance to volume change under uniform pressure in all directions?

The bulk modulus measures a material’s resistance to volume change when subjected to uniform pressure (hydraulic stress) in all directions, affecting volume but not shape.

Young’s modulus
Shear modulus
Bulk modulus
Elastic modulus
3

An electron moves with a speed of \( 3.0 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \). What is its de Broglie wavelength? (Take \( h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{J s} \), \( m_e = 9.11 \times 10^{-31} \, \text{kg} \))

Momentum \( p = m v = 9.11 \times 10^{-31} \times 3.0 \times 10^6 = 2.733 \times 10^{-24} \, \text{kg m/s} \).

\( \lambda = \frac{h}{p} = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{2.733 \times 10^{-24}} \approx 2.425 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{m} = 0.2425 \, \text{nm} \).

0.2425 nm
0.25 nm
0.3 nm
0.35 nm
1

A series LCR circuit has \( R = 20 \, \Omega \), \( X_L = 40 \, \Omega \), \( X_C = 60 \, \Omega \). What is the phase angle?

\( \tan \phi = \frac{X_C - X_L}{R} = \frac{60 - 40}{20} = 1 \).

\( \phi = \tan^{-1}(1) = 45^\circ \).

Since \( X_C > X_L \), the circuit is capacitive, and current leads voltage.

30°
40°
45°
60°
3

A rocket of mass \( 5000 \, \text{kg} \) is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of \( 4 \, \text{m/s}^2 \). What is the initial thrust of the rocket? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Net force \( F_{\text{net}} = ma \), where \( a = 4 \, \text{m/s}^2 \).

Thrust \( T \) must overcome weight \( mg \) and provide net force: \( T - mg = ma \).

Substitute: \( T - 5000 \times 10 = 5000 \times 4 \).

\( T - 50000 = 20000 \).

So, \( T = 50000 + 20000 = 70000 \, \text{N} \).

50000 N
60000 N
70000 N
80000 N
3

How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 0.5 moles of neon by 25 K at constant volume? (\(R = 8.31 \, \text{J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1}\))

For monatomic gas, \(C_v = \frac{3}{2} R\).

\(Q = \mu C_v \Delta T = 0.5 \times \frac{3}{2} \times 8.31 \times 25 = 155.8125 \, \text{J} \approx 155.8 \, \text{J}\).

103.9 J
155.8 J
207.8 J
259.7 J
2

Why are X-rays suitable for imaging bones in medical diagnostics?

X-rays have high penetrating power due to their short wavelengths, allowing them to pass through soft tissues but be absorbed by denser bones, creating clear images.

They heat tissues
They emit visible light
They are reflected by bones
They penetrate soft tissues
4

Which material retains magnetization after the external field is removed and is used in permanent magnets?

Ferromagnetic materials, particularly hard ferromagnets, retain magnetization after the external field is removed and are used in permanent magnets.

Diamagnetic
Paramagnetic
Ferromagnetic
Superconductor
3

Why does a conductor’s current density increase when its length is halved while keeping the potential difference constant?

Resistance \( R = \rho l / A \). Halving length (\( l' = l/2 \)) halves \( R \) (\( R' = R/2 \)). Current \( I = V / R \), so \( I' = V / (R/2) = 2I \). Current density \( j = I / A \), so \( j' = 2I / A = 2j \).

Area doubles
Voltage halves
Resistivity decreases
Current doubles
4

A particle of mass \( 1.5 \times 10^{-30} \, \text{kg} \) has the same momentum as a photon of wavelength \( 500 \, \text{nm} \). What is its speed? (Take \( h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{J s} \))

Photon momentum \( p = \frac{h}{\lambda} = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{500 \times 10^{-9}} = 1.326 \times 10^{-27} \, \text{kg m/s} \).

\( v = \frac{p}{m} = \frac{1.326 \times 10^{-27}}{1.5 \times 10^{-30}} = 8.84 \times 10^2 = 884 \, \text{m/s} \).

800 m/s
850 m/s
870 m/s
884 m/s
4

A circular loop of radius \( 0.08 \, \text{m} \) with 60 turns carries a current of \( 0.75 \, \text{A} \). What is the magnetic field at the center? (\( \mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m/A} \))

Magnetic field \( B = \frac{\mu_0 N I}{2 R} \).

\( B = \frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 60 \times 0.75}{2 \times 0.08} = \frac{18 \pi \times 10^{-6}}{0.16} = 1.125 \pi \times 10^{-4} \approx 3.53 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{T} \).

1.77 × 10⁻⁴ T
3.53 × 10⁻⁴ T
7.06 × 10⁻⁴ T
5.30 × 10⁻⁴ T
2

A transverse wave on a string has a frequency of 50 Hz and a wavelength of 0.8 m. What is the speed of the wave?

Speed: \( v = v \lambda = 50 \times 0.8 = 40 \, \text{m/s} \).

30 m/s
40 m/s
50 m/s
60 m/s
2

A gas at \( 6 \, \text{atm} \) and \( 50^\circ \text{C} \) in a \( 4 \, \text{L} \) container is heated isochorically to \( 150^\circ \text{C} \). What is the final pressure?

For isochoric: \( \frac{P_1}{T_1} = \frac{P_2}{T_2} \).

\( P_1 = 6 \, \text{atm} \), \( T_1 = 50 + 273 = 323 \, \text{K} \), \( T_2 = 150 + 273 = 423 \, \text{K} \).

\( \frac{6}{323} = \frac{P_2}{423} \Rightarrow P_2 = \frac{6 \times 423}{323} \approx 7.86 \, \text{atm} \).

7.0 atm
7.9 atm
8.5 atm
9.0 atm
2

A bar magnet of magnetic moment \( 0.5 \, \text{A m}^2 \) is placed at a distance of \( 20 \, \text{cm} \) from its center along its axis. Calculate the magnetic field \( B \) at that point. (Take \( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, \text{T m A}^{-1} \)).

The magnetic field along the axis of a bar magnet is given by \( B = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{2m}{r^3} \).

Given: \( m = 0.5 \, \text{A m}^2 \), \( r = 20 \, \text{cm} = 0.2 \, \text{m} \), \( \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} = 10^{-7} \, \text{T m A}^{-1} \).

Substitute: \( B = 10^{-7} \times \frac{2 \times 0.5}{(0.2)^3} = 10^{-7} \times \frac{1}{0.008} = 10^{-7} \times 125 = 1.25 \times 10^{-5} \, \text{T} \).

1.0 × 10⁻⁵ T
1.25 × 10⁻⁵ T
1.5 × 10⁻⁵ T
2.0 × 10⁻⁵ T
2

In projectile motion, what happens to the kinetic energy at the maximum height compared to the launch point?

At the maximum height, the vertical velocity is zero, so the kinetic energy is due only to the horizontal velocity, which remains constant. Thus, the kinetic energy decreases compared to the launch point, where both components contribute.

It increases
It decreases
It remains the same
It becomes zero
2

A glass slab (\( n = 1.5 \)) of thickness \( 12 \, \text{cm} \) is placed over a mark. What is the apparent shift?

Shift = \( t \left( 1 - \frac{1}{n} \right) \).

\( t = 12 \, \text{cm} \), \( n = 1.5 \).

Shift = \( 12 \left( 1 - \frac{1}{1.5} \right) = 12 \left( 1 - \frac{2}{3} \right) = 12 \times \frac{1}{3} = 4 \, \text{cm} \).

3 cm
3.5 cm
4.5 cm
4 cm
4

When a conductor is placed in an external electric field, why does the potential throughout its volume become constant in electrostatic equilibrium?

In electrostatic equilibrium, the electric field inside a conductor is zero because free charges rearrange to cancel any internal field. Since the electric field is the negative gradient of potential (\( E = -\frac{dV}{dr} \)), if \( E = 0 \), the potential gradient must be zero, implying the potential \( V \) is constant throughout the conductor's volume. Any potential difference would drive charge movement, contradicting the equilibrium state.

Because the electric field inside is zero
Because charges accumulate only inside the conductor
Because the external field penetrates the conductor
Because the potential varies linearly inside
1

A capillary tube of radius \( 0.65 \, \text{mm} \) is dipped in water (\( S = 0.0727 \, \text{N/m} \), \( \rho = 1000 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \), \( \cos \theta = 1 \)). What is the capillary rise? (Take \( g = 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

\( h = \frac{2 S \cos \theta}{\rho g a} \).

\( S = 0.0727 \, \text{N/m} \), \( \rho = 1000 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \), \( g = 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), \( a = 0.65 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{m} \).

\( h = \frac{2 \times 0.0727 \times 1}{1000 \times 9.8 \times 0.65 \times 10^{-3}} = 0.02285 \, \text{m} = 2.285 \, \text{cm} \).

2.0 cm
2.2 cm
2.3 cm
2.5 cm
3

A torque of \( 12 \, \text{Nm} \) is applied to a disk with moment of inertia \( 4 \, \text{kg m}^2 \). What is its angular acceleration?

\( \tau = I \alpha \).

\( \tau = 12 \, \text{Nm} \), \( I = 4 \, \text{kg m}^2 \).

\( \alpha = \frac{\tau}{I} = \frac{12}{4} = 3 \, \text{rad/s}^2 \).

2 rad/s²
3 rad/s²
4 rad/s²
5 rad/s²
2

Three charges \( +9 \, \mu\text{C} \), \( -6 \, \mu\text{C} \), and \( +4 \, \mu\text{C} \) are at \( (0, 0, 0) \), \( (9, 0, 0) \), and \( (0, 9, 0) \, \text{m} \). What is the potential at \( (9, 9, 0) \, \text{m} \)? (Take \( \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{Nm}^2 \text{C}^{-2} \)).

Distances: \( r_1 = \sqrt{9^2 + 9^2} = 9\sqrt{2} \, \text{m} \), \( r_2 = 9 \, \text{m} \), \( r_3 = 9 \, \text{m} \).

\( V = 9 \times 10^9 \left( \frac{9 \times 10^{-6}}{9\sqrt{2}} + \frac{-6 \times 10^{-6}}{9} + \frac{4 \times 10^{-6}}{9} \right) \).

\( V = 9 \times 10^9 \left( \frac{9 \times 10^{-6}}{12.728} - \frac{6 \times 10^{-6}}{9} + \frac{4 \times 10^{-6}}{9} \right) \).

\( V = 9 \times 10^9 \left( 0.707 \times 10^{-6} - 0.667 \times 10^{-6} + 0.444 \times 10^{-6} \right) \).

\( V = 9 \times 10^9 \times 0.484 \times 10^{-6} = 4356 \, \text{V} \).

4200 V
4356 V
4400 V
4500 V
2

A neutron (\( 1 \, \text{u} \)) moving at \( 2 \times 10^6 \, \text{m/s} \) collides elastically with a carbon nucleus (\( 12 \, \text{u} \)). What fraction of its kinetic energy is retained?

Fraction retained \( f_1 = \left( \frac{m_1 - m_2}{m_1 + m_2} \right)^2 = \left( \frac{1 - 12}{1 + 12} \right)^2 = \left( \frac{-11}{13} \right)^2 = \frac{121}{169} \approx 0.716 \).

0.65
0.72
0.78
0.85
2

In a full-wave rectifier with a capacitor filter, the output voltage is closer to:

The capacitor charges to the peak voltage of the rectified output and discharges slowly, making the output voltage nearer to the peak value of the AC input.

Average voltage
RMS voltage
Zero
Peak voltage
4

A point charge \( 15 \, \mu\text{C} \) is at the origin. What is the electric field magnitude at a point 6 m along the y-axis?

\( E = \frac{k |q|}{r^2} \).

\( k = 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{Nm}^2/\text{C}^2 \), \( q = 15 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{C} \), \( r = 6 \, \text{m} \).

\( E = 9 \times 10^9 \times \frac{15 \times 10^{-6}}{(6)^2} = 9 \times 10^9 \times \frac{15 \times 10^{-6}}{36} = 3.75 \times 10^3 \, \text{N/C} \).

\( 3.75 \times 10^3 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 4.0 \times 10^3 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 4.2 \times 10^3 \, \text{N/C} \)
\( 4.5 \times 10^3 \, \text{N/C} \)
1

A double convex lens has radii of curvature \( 30 \, \text{cm} \) and \( -30 \, \text{cm} \) with refractive index \( 1.6 \). What is its focal length?

Lens maker’s formula: \( \frac{1}{f} = (n - 1) \left( \frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2} \right) \).

\( n = 1.6 \), \( R_1 = 30 \, \text{cm} \), \( R_2 = -30 \, \text{cm} \).

\( \frac{1}{f} = (1.6 - 1) \left( \frac{1}{30} - \frac{1}{-30} \right) = 0.6 \left( \frac{1}{30} + \frac{1}{30} \right) = 0.6 \times \frac{2}{30} = \frac{1.2}{30} = \frac{1}{25} \).

\( f = 25 \, \text{cm} \).

20 cm
25 cm
30 cm
35 cm
2

A car moving at \( 25 \, \text{m/s} \) decelerates uniformly to rest over \( 62.5 \, \text{m} \). What is the time taken to stop?

Use \( v^2 = v_0^2 + 2 a x \) to find \( a \): \( 0 = (25)^2 + 2 a (62.5) \Rightarrow 0 = 625 + 125 a \Rightarrow a = -5 \, \text{m/s}^2 \).

Then, \( v = v_0 + a t \): \( 0 = 25 - 5 t \Rightarrow t = 5 \, \text{s} \).

The time taken is \( 5 \, \text{s} \).

4 s
6 s
3 s
5 s
4

Which condition must be satisfied for the potential energy in an SHM system to be expressible as a quadratic function of displacement?

Potential energy in SHM (\( U = \frac{1}{2} k x^2 \)) is quadratic when the force is conservative and linear (\( F = -kx \)), distinguishing SHM from non-linear systems.

The restoring force must be linear
The motion must be non-periodic
The force must vary with time
The amplitude must be constant
1

A gas occupies \( 5 \, \text{L} \) at \( 2 \, \text{atm} \) and \( 27^\circ \text{C} \). If the pressure is increased to \( 4 \, \text{atm} \) and volume reduced to \( 3 \, \text{L} \), what is the final temperature in Celsius?

Given: \( V_1 = 5 \, \text{L} \), \( P_1 = 2 \, \text{atm} \), \( T_1 = 27^\circ \text{C} = 300 \, \text{K} \), \( P_2 = 4 \, \text{atm} \), \( V_2 = 3 \, \text{L} \).

\( \frac{P_1 V_1}{T_1} = \frac{P_2 V_2}{T_2} \).

\( T_2 = T_1 \times \frac{P_2}{P_1} \times \frac{V_2}{V_1} = 300 \times \frac{4}{2} \times \frac{3}{5} = 300 \times 2 \times 0.6 = 360 \, \text{K} \).

\( t_C = T_2 - 273.15 = 360 - 273.15 \approx 86.85^\circ \text{C} \approx 87^\circ \text{C} \).

87°C
85°C
90°C
88°C
1

How much energy is required to move a \( 100 \, \text{kg} \) satellite from \( 4 R_E \) to \( 8 R_E \) from Earth’s center? (\( M_E = 6 \times 10^{24} \, \text{kg}, R_E = 6.4 \times 10^6 \, \text{m}, G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{N m}^2/\text{kg}^2 \))

\( \Delta E = -G M_E m \left(\frac{1}{r_2} - \frac{1}{r_1}\right) \).

\( r_1 = 2.56 \times 10^7 \, \text{m} \), \( r_2 = 5.12 \times 10^7 \, \text{m} \).

\( \Delta E = -6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{24} \times 100 \left(\frac{1}{5.12 \times 10^7} - \frac{1}{2.56 \times 10^7}\right) \).

\( \Delta E = -4.002 \times 10^{16} (-1.953 \times 10^{-8}) \approx 7.82 \times 10^8 \, \text{J} \).

7.6 × 10⁸ J
7.8 × 10⁸ J
8.0 × 10⁸ J
8.2 × 10⁸ J
2

A \( 1250 \, \text{kg} \) car turns on a banked road (\( \theta = 15^\circ \), \( \mu_s = 0.3 \)) with radius \( 45 \, \text{m} \). What is the maximum speed without slipping? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), \( \tan 15^\circ \approx 0.268 \))

Maximum speed: \( v_{\text{max}} = \sqrt{rg \frac{\mu_s + \tan\theta}{1 - \mu_s \tan\theta}} \).

Numerator: \( \mu_s + \tan\theta = 0.3 + 0.268 = 0.568 \).

Denominator: \( 1 - 0.3 \times 0.268 = 1 - 0.0804 = 0.9196 \).

\( v_{\text{max}}^2 = 45 \times 10 \times \frac{0.568}{0.9196} \approx 450 \times 0.6175 \approx 277.875 \).

\( v_{\text{max}} = \sqrt{277.875} \approx 16.67 \, \text{m/s} \).

15 m/s
16.7 m/s
18 m/s
19.5 m/s
2

What is the kinetic energy of a \( 500 \, \text{kg} \) satellite at \( 7 R_E \) from Earth’s center? (\( M_E = 6 \times 10^{24} \, \text{kg}, R_E = 6.4 \times 10^6 \, \text{m}, G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \, \text{N m}^2/\text{kg}^2 \))

\( K = \frac{G M_E m}{2 r} \).

\( r = 7 R_E = 4.48 \times 10^7 \, \text{m} \).

\( K = \frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{24} \times 500}{2 \times 4.48 \times 10^7} \).

\( K = \frac{2.001 \times 10^{17}}{8.96 \times 10^7} \approx 2.23 \times 10^9 \, \text{J} \).

2.1 × 10⁹ J
2.2 × 10⁹ J
2.3 × 10⁹ J
2.4 × 10⁹ J
3

What is the shape of the wavefront reflected by a plane mirror when a spherical wave is incident on it?

A spherical wavefront incident on a plane mirror reflects as a spherical wavefront, diverging from the mirror’s virtual focus.

Spherical
Plane
Cylindrical
Tilted plane
1

A stone is thrown upwards with a speed of \( 18 \, \text{m/s} \). What is its velocity after \( 2 \, \text{s} \)? (Take \( g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))

Use \( v = v_0 + a t \). Here, \( v_0 = 18 \, \text{m/s} \), \( a = -10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), \( t = 2 \, \text{s} \).

Substitute: \( v = 18 - 10 \cdot 2 = 18 - 20 = -2 \, \text{m/s} \).

The velocity is \( -2 \, \text{m/s} \) (downward).

0 m/s
-2 m/s
2 m/s
-4 m/s
2

Which of the following best describes the nuclear force?

The nuclear force is a strong, short-range attractive force that binds protons and neutrons in the nucleus, overcoming the Coulomb repulsion between protons. It is much stronger than the Coulomb force and does not depend on the electric charge of the nucleons.

Strong, short-range, and charge-independent
Weak, long-range, and charge-dependent
Strong, long-range, and charge-dependent
Weak, short-range, and charge-independent
1

Why does the classical electromagnetic theory predict that an atom should collapse?

An accelerating electron in orbit emits radiation, losing energy and spiraling into the nucleus, leading to collapse according to classical theory.

Electrons have no charge
Nucleus repels electrons
Stable orbits exist
Radiation causes energy loss
4

Chemistry

Which of the following elements is most likely to lose electrons to form a stable cation?

Potassium (K), with \(4s^1\), loses one electron easily to achieve a stable noble gas configuration (\(Ar\)).

F
O
N
K
4

Which of the following ions has the electronic configuration \( 3d^3 \)?

V (Z = 23) has \( 3d^3 4s^2 \). For \( \ce{V^{2+}} \), 2 electrons from 4s are lost, leaving \( 3d^3 \).

\( \ce{V^{2+}} \)
\( \ce{Ti^{2+}} \)
\( \ce{Cr^{2+}} \)
\( \ce{Mn^{2+}} \)
1

For the reaction \( \ce{2A + 3B -> C} \), the concentration of A decreases from 0.14 M to 0.10 M in 20 seconds. What is the average rate of formation of C in \( \ce{mol L^{-1} s^{-1}} \)?

Rate = \( -\frac{1}{2} \frac{\Delta[\ce{A}]}{\Delta t} = -\frac{1}{3} \frac{\Delta[\ce{B}]}{\Delta t} = \frac{\Delta[\ce{C}]}{\Delta t} \).

\( \Delta[\ce{A}] = 0.10 - 0.14 = -0.04 \, \ce{mol L^{-1}} \), \( \Delta t = 20 \, \ce{s} \).

\( -\frac{\Delta[\ce{A}]}{\Delta t} = 2.0 \times 10^{-3} \), so \( \frac{\Delta[\ce{C}]}{\Delta t} = \frac{2.0 \times 10^{-3}}{2} = 1.0 \times 10^{-3} \).

\( 1.0 \times 10^{-3} \)
\( 2.0 \times 10^{-3} \)
\( 5.0 \times 10^{-4} \)
\( 3.0 \times 10^{-3} \)
1

What is the mole fraction of NaCl in a solution containing 5.85 g of NaCl and 90 g of water? (Molar masses: NaCl = 58.5 g/mol, H₂O = 18 g/mol)

Moles of NaCl = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.1 mol.

Moles of H₂O = 90 / 18 = 5 mol.

Total moles = 0.1 + 5 = 5.1.

Mole fraction = 0.1 / 5.1 ≈ 0.0196.

0.01
0.015
0.0196
0.02
3

Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution most slowly?

Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution slowly due to resonance stabilization of the C-X bond.

\( \ce{CH3Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2Br} \)
\( \ce{C6H5Cl} \)
\( \ce{CH3CH2CH2I} \)
3

Which complex is used in the purification of nickel?

\( \ce{[Ni(CO)4]} \) is volatile and used in the Mond process to purify nickel, unlike the others.

\( \ce{[NiCl4]^{2-}} \)
\( \ce{[Co(NH3)6]^{3+}} \)
\( \ce{[Ni(CO)4]} \)
\( \ce{[Fe(CN)6]^{4-}} \)
3

What is the primary valence of nickel in \( \ce{NiCl2 \cdot 6H2O} \)?

In \( \ce{NiCl2 \cdot 6H2O} \), formulated as \( \ce{[Ni(H2O)6]Cl2} \), the primary valence is the oxidation state of Ni, satisfied by 2 ionizable \( \ce{Cl^-} \) ions, so it is 2.

2
3
4
6
1

What is the product of Finkelstein reaction?

Finkelstein reaction involves halogen exchange to form alkyl iodides.

Alcohol
Ether
Alkyl iodide
Alkyl chloride
3

Which species in \( \ce{2Fe + 3H2SO4 -> Fe2(SO4)3 + 3H2} \) acts as the reducing agent?

Fe (0 to +3) is oxidized, reducing H (+1 to 0), so Fe is the reducing agent.

H₂SO₄
Fe₂(SO₄)₃
Fe
H₂
3

Which metal has a work function of 4.3 eV according to common values?

Among common metals, silver (Ag) has a work function of 4.3 eV, as noted in tables of photoelectric properties.

Sodium
Potassium
Silver
Magnesium
3

A 1.5 M solution of KOH has a density of 1.06 g/mL. What is its molality? (Molar mass of KOH = 56 g/mol)

Mass of 1 L = 1060 g.

Mass of KOH = 1.5 × 56 = 84 g.

Mass of water = 1060 - 84 = 976 g = 0.976 kg.

Molality = 1.5 / 0.976 ≈ 1.54 m.

1.2 m
1.4 m
1.54 m
1.6 m
3

The \( K_{sp} \) of \( \ce{Ag2CO3} \) is \( 8.1 \times 10^{-12} \). What is the molar solubility in water?

\( \ce{Ag2CO3(s) <=> 2Ag+ + CO3^2-} \), \( K_{sp} = (2S)^2 \cdot S = 4S^3 \).

\( 4S^3 = 8.1 \times 10^{-12} \), \( S^3 = 2.025 \times 10^{-12} \), \( S \approx 1.27 \times 10^{-4} \) M.

\( 2.0 \times 10^{-4} \) M
\( 1.3 \times 10^{-4} \) M
\( 8.1 \times 10^{-12} \) M
\( 4.0 \times 10^{-6} \) M
2

The boiling point elevation of a 0.15 m aqueous \( \ce{KCl} \) solution is 0.156 K. What is the van't Hoff factor? (\( K_b = 0.52 \, \text{K kg/mol} \))

\( \Delta T_b = i \cdot K_b \cdot m \).

\( 0.156 = i \times 0.52 \times 0.15 \).

\( i = \frac{0.156}{0.52 \times 0.15} = \frac{0.156}{0.078} = 2 \).

1.5
1.0
2.0
2.5
3

How many molecules are in 12 g of CH₃OH? (Molar mass = 32 g/mol, Avogadro number = 6.022 × 10²³)

Moles = 12 / 32 = 0.375 mol.

Molecules = 0.375 × 6.022 × 10²³ ≈ 2.258 × 10²³.

1.505 × 10²³
2.0 × 10²³
2.258 × 10²³
3.011 × 10²³
3

Calculate \(\Delta_r H\) for \(\ce{CO(g) + 1/2O2(g) -> CO2(g)}\) using \(\Delta_f H^\circ\) values: CO(g) = -110 kJ/mol, CO₂(g) = -393 kJ/mol, O₂(g) = 0 kJ/mol.

\(\Delta_r H = \sum \Delta_f H^\circ_{\text{products}} - \sum \Delta_f H^\circ_{\text{reactants}} = -393 - (-110 + 0) = -283 kJ/mol\).

-503 kJ/mol
-393 kJ/mol
-110 kJ/mol
-283 kJ/mol
4

Which of the following is a characteristic of a nucleophile?

A nucleophile is electron-rich and donates an electron pair, often bearing a lone pair or negative charge.

Electron-rich species
Electron-deficient species
Neutral radical
Positively charged species
1

Which of the following alkanes has the highest boiling point?

Boiling points increase with molecular size. Decane (\( \ce{C10H22} \)) has the highest molecular mass among the options.

Methane
Butane
Hexane
Decane
4

In the Dumas method, the apparatus includes a furnace to convert nitrogen to which gas?

The organic compound is heated in a furnace with \( \ce{CuO} \), converting nitrogen to \( \ce{N2} \), which is then measured.

\( \ce{NH3} \)
\( \ce{N2} \)
\( \ce{NO2} \)
\( \ce{N2O} \)
2

Which of the following is an example of a symmetrical ether?

Symmetrical ethers have identical alkyl groups attached to the oxygen atom.

Ethoxyethane
Methoxybenzene
Ethyl methyl ether
Phenol
1

Which catalyst is commonly used to reduce nitrobenzene to aniline?

Reduction of nitrobenzene (\( \ce{C6H5NO2} \)) to aniline (\( \ce{C6H5NH2} \)) typically uses \( \ce{Sn} \) with \( \ce{HCl} \), followed by neutralization, a standard method in the PDF.

\( \ce{Sn}/HCl \)
\( \ce{LiAlH4} \)
\( \ce{NaBH4} \)
\( \ce{Br2}/NaOH \)
1

Which of the following reactions converts carboxylic acids to alcohols?

Carboxylic acids can be reduced to primary alcohols using lithium aluminium hydride (\(\ce{LiAlH4}\)).

Friedel-Crafts reaction
Rosenmund reduction
Reduction with \(\ce{LiAlH4}\)
Wolff-Kishner reduction
3

Which of the following statements is true for alkenes?

Alkenes have the general formula \( \ce{C_nH_{2n}} \) and contain at least one double bond.

They contain only single bonds
They have the general formula \( \ce{C_nH_{2n}} \)
They have the general formula \( \ce{C_nH_{2n+2}} \)
They are fully saturated
2

What is the IUPAC name of \( \ce{CH3CH(CH3)CH2OH} \)?

The longest chain with -OH has 3 carbons (propan-1-ol), with a methyl group on carbon 2. The name is 2-methylpropan-1-ol.

Propan-1-ol
Butan-1-ol
2-Methylpropan-1-ol
3-Methylpropan-1-ol
3

Which of the following is the correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides with amines?

The reactivity of alkyl halides with amines follows the order of nucleophilic substitution: \( \ce{RI > RBr > RCl} \), due to the decreasing bond strength of C-X.

\( \ce{RCl > RBr > RI} \)
\( \ce{RBr > RI > RCl} \)
\( \ce{RI > RBr > RCl} \)
\( \ce{RCl > RI > RBr} \)
3

Which type of ethers undergo cleavage with HI?

Alkyl aryl ethers undergo cleavage at the alkyl-oxygen bond, producing phenol and alkyl halide.

Symmetrical ethers
Aromatic ethers
Cyclic ethers
All ethers
2

The number of moles of \( \ce{Fe^{2+}} \) oxidized by 1 mole of \( \ce{K2Cr2O7} \) in acidic medium is:

\( \ce{Cr2O7^{2-} + 14H^+ + 6Fe^{2+} -> 2Cr^{3+} + 6Fe^{3+} + 7H2O} \). 1 mole \( \ce{K2Cr2O7} \) oxidizes 6 moles \( \ce{Fe^{2+}} \).

5
4
6
3
3

Which of the following is a property of f-block elements?

f-block elements (lanthanoids, actinoids) are all metals due to their electronic configurations and metallic bonding.

All are metals
High electronegativity
Form only covalent compounds
Low ionization enthalpy
1

The standard enthalpy of fusion of NaCl is 28.8 kJ/mol at 1081 K. What is the heat absorbed when 58.5 g of NaCl melts (molar mass = 58.5 g/mol)?

Moles = \(58.5 / 58.5 = 1 mol\). Heat = \(n \times \Delta_{fus} H^\circ = 1 \times 28.8 = 28.8 kJ\).

28.8 kJ
14.4 kJ
57.6 kJ
0 kJ
1

What is the color of \( \ce{[CoCl(NH3)5]^{2+}} \) in aqueous solution?

\( \ce{[CoCl(NH3)5]^{2+}} \) absorbs yellow light due to \( d-d \) transitions, appearing violet, the complementary color.

Red
Violet
Yellow-orange
Blue
2

For \( \ce{C(s) + CO2(g) <=> 2CO(g)} \), removing \( \ce{CO} \) will:

Removing \( \ce{CO} \) shifts equilibrium to products to replenish the removed product.

Shift to products
Shift to reactants
No effect
Decrease \( K_p \)
1

The monosaccharide that forms sucrose with glucose is:

Sucrose is a disaccharide formed by the condensation of glucose and fructose, linked by an α-1,2 glycosidic bond.

Galactose
Fructose
Ribose
Mannose
2

Which reaction is used to prepare benzophenone from benzoyl chloride?

Benzophenone is synthesized using the Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction, where benzoyl chloride reacts with benzene in the presence of \(\ce{AlCl3}\).

Wurtz reaction
Friedel-Crafts acylation
Cannizzaro reaction
Tollens’ test
2

What is the pH of a solution with \( [\ce{OH-}] = 2.5 \times 10^{-2} \) M?

\( \text{pOH} = -\log(2.5 \times 10^{-2}) \approx 1.6 \), \( \text{pH} = 14 - 1.6 = 12.4 \).

11.0
1.6
13.0
12.4
4

How many electrons are transferred in the reduction of 1 mol of O₂ to H₂O in acidic medium?

Reaction: \( \ce{O2 + 4H+ + 4e- -> 2H2O} \).

4 electrons per mole of O₂.

2
3
4
1
3

The Henry's law constant for a gas in water is \( 8 \times 10^3 \, \text{bar} \) at 298 K. What is the mole fraction of the gas under a partial pressure of 0.4 bar?

\( p = K_H \cdot x \).

\( 0.4 = 8 \times 10^3 \cdot x \).

\( x = \frac{0.4}{8 \times 10^3} = 5 \times 10^{-5} \).

1 × 10⁻⁴
2.5 × 10⁻⁵
5 × 10⁻⁵
7.5 × 10⁻⁵
3

A reaction has \( k = 1.5 \times 10^{-4} \, \ce{s^{-1}} \) at 300 K and \( E_a = 54 \, \ce{kJ mol^{-1}} \). What is the pre-exponential factor \( A \) in \( \ce{s^{-1}} \)? (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

\( k = A e^{-E_a/RT} \).

\( 1.5 \times 10^{-4} = A e^{-54000/(8.314 \times 300)} \), \( A = 1.5 \times 10^{-4} / e^{-21.63} = 4.2 \times 10^5 \).

\( 2.1 \times 10^5 \)
\( 8.4 \times 10^5 \)
\( 1.0 \times 10^6 \)
\( 4.2 \times 10^5 \)
4

What is the entropy change when two gases mix isothermally?

Mixing of gases increases disorder due to increased randomness, so \(\Delta S > 0\).

Decreases
Zero
Increases
Depends on pressure
3

Calculate the wavenumber of light with wavelength \( 5800 \, \text{Å} \). (1 Å = 10-10 m)

Wavenumber \( \bar{\nu} = \frac{1}{\lambda} \). \( \lambda = 5800 \, \text{Å} = 5800 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{m} = 5.8 \times 10^{-7} \, \text{m} \). \( \bar{\nu} = \frac{1}{5.8 \times 10^{-7}} = 1.724 \times 10^6 \, \text{m}^{-1} \).

1.602 × 106 m-1
1.724 × 106 m-1
2.013 × 106 m-1
3.313 × 106 m-1
2

A gaseous reaction follows \( \ce{Rate = k p_A^2} \) with \( k = 0.2 \, \ce{atm^{-1} s^{-1}} \) and \( p_A = 0.5 \, \ce{atm} \). What is the rate in \( \ce{atm s^{-1}} \)?

Rate = \( k p_A^2 = 0.2 \times (0.5)^2 = 0.2 \times 0.25 = 0.05 \).

0.025
0.1
0.075
0.05
4

Which molecule has a double covalent bond formed by sharing four electrons between different atoms?

In \( \ce{O2} \), two oxygen atoms share two pairs of electrons (4 electrons), forming a double covalent bond between identical atoms, but \( \ce{CO} \) has a triple bond, \( \ce{H2} \) a single bond, and \( \ce{HI} \) a single bond. The question specifies "different atoms," but among options, \( \ce{O2} \) is the closest fit for a double bond.

\( \ce{O2} \)
\( \ce{CO} \)
\( \ce{H2} \)
\( \ce{HI} \)
1

What is the cell potential of a hydrogen electrode in a solution with pH = 4 at 298 K, given \( E^0 = 0 \, \text{V} \)?

For \( \ce{H+ + e- -> 1/2 H2} \), \( E = E^0 - \frac{0.059}{1} \log \frac{1}{[\text{H}^+]} \).

\( [\text{H}^+] = 10^{-4} \), \( E = 0 - 0.059 \times 4 = -0.236 \, \text{V} \).

-0.118 V
-0.236 V
0.118 V
0.236 V
2

How many pi bonds are present in the \( \ce{C2H2} \) molecule?

\( \ce{C2H2} \) has a triple bond between carbons (1 sigma, 2 pi), totaling 2 pi bonds.

1
3
0
2
4

Which of the following molecules has a bond order of 1 according to molecular orbital theory?

For \( \ce{F2} \): \( (\sigma 1s)^2 (\sigma^* 1s)^2 (\sigma 2s)^2 (\sigma^* 2s)^2 (\sigma 2p_z)^2 (\pi 2p_x)^2 (\pi 2p_y)^2 (\pi^* 2p_x)^2 (\pi^* 2p_y)^2 \). Bond order = \( \frac{1}{2} (10 - 8) = 1 \).

\( \ce{O2} \)
\( \ce{F2} \)
\( \ce{N2} \)
\( \ce{CO} \)
2

What is the major product when benzaldehyde undergoes aldol condensation?

Benzaldehyde does not undergo aldol condensation as it lacks an \(\alpha\)-hydrogen. Instead, it undergoes the Cannizzaro reaction in the presence of a strong base.

Benzyl alcohol and benzoate
\(\beta\)-hydroxy benzaldehyde
Benzoic acid
Benzophenone
1

The number of unpaired electrons in \( \ce{Ti^{3+}} \) (Z = 22) is:

Ti: \( 3d^2 4s^2 \). \( \ce{Ti^{3+}} \): \( 3d^1 \) (loses 2 from 4s, 1 from 3d). 1 unpaired electron.

2
3
1
0
3

Botany

Which of the following is a correct example of taxonomic hierarchy?

Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom
Genus → Species → Family → Order → Phylum → Class → Kingdom
Species → Family → Genus → Class → Order → Phylum → Kingdom
Order → Family → Genus → Class → Species → Phylum → Kingdom
1

The correct taxonomic hierarchy is: Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom.

At which stage of mitosis do chromosomes align at the center of the cell?

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
2

During metaphase, chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, preparing for equal distribution to daughter cells.

What is the chromosomal composition of a normal human male?

46, XX
45, XO
46, XY
47, XXY
3

A normal human male has 46 chromosomes, including one X and one Y sex chromosome.

What is the primary cause of the loss of Amazon rainforest biodiversity?

Glaciation
Deforestation
Volcanic activity
Urbanization
2

Deforestation for agriculture, logging, and infrastructure development is the leading cause of biodiversity loss in the Amazon rainforest.

How does fermentation differ from aerobic respiration?

Fermentation produces more ATP
Fermentation does not require oxygen
Fermentation takes place in mitochondria
Fermentation uses the Electron Transport Chain
2

Fermentation occurs in the absence of oxygen and does not involve the Electron Transport Chain.

Which of the following is a correct statement about post-translational modifications?

Post-translational modifications occur in the nucleus.
Post-translational modifications include phosphorylation and glycosylation.
Post-translational modifications do not affect protein function.
Post-translational modifications involve the removal of introns.
2

Post-translational modifications such as **phosphorylation and glycosylation** modify proteins after translation to regulate their function.

Which of the following statements about protozoans is incorrect?

Protozoans are unicellular eukaryotic organisms.
Protozoans reproduce only sexually.
Protozoans can be free-living or parasitic.
Protozoans exhibit different types of locomotion.
2

Protozoans reproduce both asexually (binary fission) and sexually, depending on the species.

Which of the following is an example of an aggregate fruit?

Tomato
Apple
Strawberry
Mango
3

Strawberry is an aggregate fruit, meaning it develops from multiple ovaries of a single flower.

Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest net primary productivity?

Tropical rainforest
Grassland
Desert
Wetland
3

Deserts have the lowest net primary productivity due to limited water availability and extreme climatic conditions.

Which of the following statements about CAM plants is correct?

They open their stomata during the day.
They store carbon dioxide as organic acids at night.
They fix carbon dioxide using RuBisCO at night.
They perform the Calvin cycle only at night.
2

CAM plants open their stomata at night and store carbon dioxide as organic acids.

Which phenomenon explains why linked genes do not follow Mendel’s law of independent assortment?

Mutation
Linkage
Pleiotropy
Epistasis
2

Linkage occurs when genes located close together on the same chromosome tend to be inherited together.

Which of the following correctly describes a silent mutation?

It introduces a premature stop codon.
It does not change the amino acid sequence.
It results in a frameshift mutation.
It always affects protein function.
2

A **silent mutation does not change the amino acid sequence** due to the redundancy of the genetic code.

Which disorder is caused due to a defect in the dystrophin gene on the X chromosome?

Cystic fibrosis
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Huntington’s disease
Sickle-cell anemia
2

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked disorder caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene.

Which stage of mitosis is best for studying chromosome morphology?

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
2

In metaphase, chromosomes are fully condensed and aligned at the equatorial plate, making them ideal for studying morphology.

Which of the following is correct about centrioles?

Centrioles are present in plant cells.
Centrioles are involved in spindle formation during cell division.
Centrioles store genetic material.
Centrioles perform photosynthesis.
2

Centrioles play a key role in organizing microtubules to form the spindle apparatus during cell division, especially in animal cells.

Which of the following statements about invasive species is correct?

Invasive species can disrupt native ecosystems by competing for resources.
Invasive species always have a positive impact on biodiversity.
Invasive species cannot spread beyond their introduced habitat.
Invasive species never affect native plant populations.
1

Invasive species often outcompete native species, leading to declines in biodiversity and disruption of ecosystem functions.

Which type of chromosome has its centromere located at the terminal end?

Metacentric
Sub-metacentric
Acrocentric
Telocentric
4

Telocentric chromosomes have their centromere located at the terminal end, resulting in a single arm.

Which of the following statements about the Red List is correct?

It is published by IUCN.
It includes only plant species.
It does not classify species based on their extinction risk.
It lists only species that have gone extinct.
1

The IUCN Red List categorizes species based on their extinction risk, including endangered, vulnerable, and critically endangered species.

What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross in F2 generation if genes show complete dominance?

3:1
9:3:3:1
1:2:1
2:1
2

A dihybrid cross with complete dominance results in a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the F2 generation.

Which of the following represents a density-independent factor affecting population growth?

Disease
Predation
Earthquake
Competition
3

Earthquakes are density-independent because they impact populations regardless of their size.

What is the function of root hairs?

Protection
Absorption of water and minerals
Transport of food
Photosynthesis
2

Root hairs increase the surface area of roots for better absorption of water and minerals from the soil.

Which of the following statements about aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is correct?

It removes introns from mRNA.
It catalyzes the attachment of amino acids to tRNA.
It helps unwind DNA during replication.
It adds a poly-A tail to mRNA.
2

**Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase attaches amino acids to their corresponding tRNAs**, enabling translation.

Which plant hormone accelerates the abscission of leaves and fruits?

Auxin
Gibberellin
Abscisic acid
Ethylene
4

Ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs, including leaves and fruits.

Which part of the stem helps in climbing in plants like Passiflora?

Thorns
Tendrils
Rhizomes
Stilt roots
2

In some plants like Passiflora, stem tendrils help in climbing by coiling around a support.

Why do CAM plants keep their stomata closed during the day?

To prevent oxygen loss
To reduce transpiration
To increase CO₂ uptake
To perform photorespiration
2

CAM plants keep their stomata closed during the day to minimize water loss through transpiration in arid environments.

Which of the following statements about mutation is incorrect?

Mutations can be beneficial, neutral, or harmful.
All mutations are inherited by the next generation.
Point mutations involve a single nucleotide change.
Frameshift mutations occur due to insertions or deletions.
2

Not all mutations are inherited; only those in germ cells can be passed to the next generation.

The chalaza in an ovule functions primarily to:

Anchor the ovule to the placenta and facilitate nutrient transport
Form the seed coat
Develop into the embryo sac
Produce the funiculus
1

The chalaza is the region where the integuments and nucellus meet; it plays a role in nutrient transfer from the placenta to the ovule.

Which of the following bioactive molecules is used as an immunosuppressant?

Statins
Streptokinase
Cyclosporin A
Penicillin
3

Cyclosporin A, produced by Trichoderma polysporum, is used to suppress the immune system in organ transplants.

Which type of bond stabilizes the two strands of the DNA double helix?

Phosphodiester bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Ionic bonds
Covalent bonds
2

Hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs stabilize the DNA double helix.

Which plant hormone induces apical hook formation in dicot seedlings?

Auxin
Gibberellin
Cytokinin
Ethylene
4

Ethylene induces apical hook formation in dicot seedlings to protect the shoot tip during germination.

Which of the following modifications helps plants survive in waterlogged conditions?

Prop roots
Pneumatophores
Tendrils
Thorns
2

Pneumatophores, or breathing roots, are specialized aerial roots found in mangroves to help in gaseous exchange in waterlogged conditions.

Which of the following statements about Rhodophyceae is correct?

Rhodophyceae have flagellated spores for reproduction.
Some red algae produce carrageen, a hydrocolloid.
Rhodophyceae store food as oil droplets in pyrenoids.
Their dominant pigment is chlorophyll b.
2

Certain red algae (Rhodophyceae) produce hydrocolloids like carrageen, used commercially.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about ecosystem diversity?

Ecosystem diversity includes variation in ecosystems within a region.
Ecosystem diversity does not include differences in climate and landscapes.
Ecosystem diversity contributes to overall biodiversity.
Coral reefs and mangroves are examples of diverse ecosystems.
2

Ecosystem diversity includes differences in landscapes, climates, and habitat types within a region.

Which of the following statements about the Krebs cycle is INCORRECT?

It takes place in the mitochondrial matrix.
NADH and FADH₂ are produced during the cycle.
Glucose directly enters the Krebs cycle.
CO₂ is released as a byproduct.
3

Glucose does not directly enter the Krebs cycle; it is first converted to pyruvate and then to Acetyl-CoA.

Which of the following statements about cytokinesis is correct?

Cytokinesis follows nuclear division
Cytokinesis is the same in both plant and animal cells
Cytokinesis is not required for cell division
Cytokinesis only occurs in mitosis
1

Cytokinesis occurs after nuclear division and differs between plant and animal cells.

Which of the following statements is NOT a part of the modern cell theory?

All living organisms are composed of cells.
Cells arise from pre-existing cells.
Cells can spontaneously generate under specific conditions.
Cells are the fundamental unit of life.
3

Cell theory states that all cells arise from pre-existing cells; spontaneous generation has been disproved.

Which of the following correctly describes a nonsense mutation?

It results in a premature stop codon.
It replaces one amino acid with another.
It does not change the amino acid sequence.
It results in an insertion or deletion of nucleotides.
1

A **nonsense mutation** introduces a **premature stop codon**, leading to an incomplete and often nonfunctional protein.

Which of the following statements about root modifications is correct?

Taproots never store food
Fibrous roots are common in monocots
Pneumatophores absorb nutrients from the soil
Stilt roots are a type of underground root
2

Fibrous roots are commonly found in monocots, where they arise from the stem base and spread out near the soil surface.

Which term is used for the leaf arrangement in Alstonia?

Alternate
Opposite
Whorled
None of the above
3

Alstonia exhibits whorled phyllotaxy, where more than two leaves arise at a node.

Which type of RNA forms the major structural and catalytic component of ribosomes?

mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
snRNA
3

rRNA (ribosomal RNA) is the structural and catalytic component of ribosomes, aiding in protein synthesis.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about carrying capacity?

Carrying capacity is the maximum population an environment can support.
It remains constant regardless of environmental conditions.
It is influenced by resource availability and competition.
Populations may temporarily exceed carrying capacity before declining.
2

Carrying capacity is not fixed; it fluctuates based on environmental factors such as food supply and habitat conditions.

Which part of a plant is composed mainly of simple tissues?

Epidermis
Vascular bundles
Ground tissue
Pericycle
3

The ground tissue consists mostly of simple tissues like parenchyma, collenchyma, and sclerenchyma.

Which of the following best describes the role of antipodal cells in the embryo sac?

They fuse with the sperm cell to form the zygote
They assist in nourishing the embryo sac before degenerating
They develop into the endosperm
They form the seed coat
2

Antipodal cells are thought to help in nourishing the embryo sac and usually degenerate later in development.

Which of the following conditions increases photorespiration?

High carbon dioxide concentration
Low oxygen concentration
High oxygen concentration
Cool and humid conditions
3

Photorespiration increases when oxygen levels are high and carbon dioxide levels are low.

Which kingdom includes both unicellular and multicellular heterotrophic organisms?

Monera
Fungi
Plantae
Animalia
2

Kingdom Fungi includes both unicellular (e.g., yeast) and multicellular (e.g., mushrooms) heterotrophic organisms.

Zoology

Which part of the brain regulates body temperature, hunger, and thirst?

Thalamus
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Medulla oblongata
3

The hypothalamus plays a key role in regulating body temperature, hunger, thirst, and homeostasis.

Which of the following is NOT a core technique of modern biotechnology?

Genetic engineering
Bioprocess engineering
Selective breeding
Recombinant DNA technology
3

Selective breeding is a traditional technique, while genetic engineering, bioprocess engineering, and recombinant DNA technology are core to modern biotechnology.

Which type of joint connects the skull bones?

Synovial joint
Cartilaginous joint
Fibrous joint
Hinge joint
3

Fibrous joints, such as sutures in the skull, allow little to no movement.

Which reproductive technology involves the collection of semen from a male and its introduction into a female’s reproductive tract?

ZIFT
Artificial Insemination (AI)
IVF
Tubectomy
2

Artificial Insemination (AI) involves the collection of semen and its introduction into the female reproductive tract to assist in conception.

Where does fertilization typically occur in the human female reproductive tract?

Uterus
Cervix
Fallopian tube
Ovary
3

Fertilization usually takes place in the fallopian tube, where the sperm meets the ovum.

Which of the following is a correct feature of reptiles?

They have a three-chambered heart, except crocodiles
They have a moist, glandular skin
They excrete urea as their primary nitrogenous waste
They are warm-blooded animals
1

Most reptiles have a three-chambered heart, while crocodiles have a four-chambered heart.

Which structure prevents the collapse of the trachea during breathing?

Smooth muscles
Alveoli
Cartilaginous rings
Pleural fluid
3

The trachea is supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings that prevent its collapse during breathing.

Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

Typhoid
Pneumonia
AIDS
Amoebiasis
3

AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which attacks the immune system.

Which organ is primarily affected by Hepatitis B virus (HBV)?

Lungs
Kidneys
Liver
Heart
3

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) primarily affects the liver, leading to inflammation and potential liver damage.

Which of the following statements about frog locomotion is correct?

Frogs use only their front limbs for movement.
Hind limbs are muscular and adapted for jumping.
Frogs cannot move on land.
Frogs lack webbed feet.
2

Frogs have strong hind limbs that are adapted for jumping and swimming.

Which of the following structures is responsible for storing urine in frogs?

Kidney
Cloaca
Urinary bladder
Ureter
3

The urinary bladder in frogs temporarily stores urine before it is expelled through the cloaca.

Which of the following statements about palindromic sequences in DNA is correct?

They are recognized by DNA polymerase
They are used for DNA ligation
They are the recognition sites for restriction enzymes
They are found only in bacterial genomes
3

Palindromic sequences in DNA serve as recognition sites for restriction enzymes, which cut at specific points within these sequences.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide?

Phosphate group
Nitrogenous base
Amino acid
Pentose sugar
3

A nucleotide consists of a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and a pentose sugar, but not an amino acid.

Which of the following statements about fishes is correct?

All fishes have external fertilization
Cartilaginous fishes lack an operculum
All fishes possess a swim bladder
Bony fishes have a cartilaginous endoskeleton
2

Cartilaginous fishes (Chondrichthyes) lack an operculum and instead have gill slits for respiration.

Which of the following statements about selectable markers is correct?

Selectable markers help in identifying transformed cells.
Selectable markers are not required in genetic engineering.
Selectable markers prevent DNA replication.
Selectable markers function only in eukaryotic cells.
1

Selectable markers, such as antibiotic resistance genes, help identify transformed cells by allowing only recombinant cells to survive.

Which scientist’s work on population dynamics influenced Darwin’s theory of natural selection?

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
Gregor Mendel
Thomas Malthus
Hugo de Vries
3

Thomas Malthus’s work on population growth and resource limitation influenced Darwin’s concept of natural selection.

Which structure in the male reproductive system secretes an alkaline fluid that neutralizes the acidic environment of the vagina?

Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Bulbourethral glands
Epididymis
2

The prostate gland secretes an alkaline fluid that helps neutralize the vaginal pH, enhancing sperm viability.

Which of the following best describes saltatory conduction in myelinated neurons?

Impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to another
Impulse travels continuously along the axon
Impulse conduction is slower in myelinated neurons
Impulse conduction occurs in only one direction
1

Saltatory conduction occurs when the nerve impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to another, increasing conduction speed.

Which of the following statements about AIDS is correct?

AIDS is caused by a bacterial infection.
AIDS weakens the immune system by destroying CD4+ T-cells.
AIDS can be cured with antibiotics.
AIDS does not affect immune responses.
2

AIDS is caused by HIV, which destroys CD4+ T-cells, leading to immune system failure.

Which of the following methods is used to insert foreign DNA into plant cells?

Electroporation
Microinjection
Biolistics
Conjugation
3

Biolistics, or the gene gun method, introduces DNA into plant cells using high-velocity microprojectiles.

Which ligament connects the femur to the tibia in the knee joint?

Achilles tendon
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
Collateral ligament
Patellar ligament
2

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) stabilizes the knee by connecting the femur to the tibia.

Which evolutionary mechanism is driven by human activities such as selective breeding?

Natural Selection
Genetic Drift
Artificial Selection
Gene Flow
3

Artificial selection is the process where humans select and breed organisms with desirable traits.

Which of the following statements about renal circulation is incorrect?

The afferent arteriole carries blood into the glomerulus.
The efferent arteriole carries blood away from the glomerulus.
The renal vein carries oxygenated blood from the kidney.
Peritubular capillaries are involved in reabsorption.
3

The renal vein carries deoxygenated but filtered blood away from the kidney, not oxygenated blood.

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding reproductive health?

Reproductive health includes only physical well-being.
Sex education in schools helps in spreading awareness about reproductive health.
Reproductive health does not involve family planning.
Infertility is always caused by genetic factors.
2

Sex education helps in creating awareness about reproductive health, whereas reproductive health also includes emotional and social well-being, and family planning is an essential part of it.

Which blood disorder is caused by a decrease in platelet count?

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Leukopenia
Polycythemia
2

Thrombocytopenia is a condition where platelet count is low, leading to excessive bleeding.

Which type of blood vessel has the thickest walls?

Veins
Arteries
Capillaries
Lymphatic vessels
2

**Arteries** have thick walls to withstand high blood pressure as they carry blood away from the heart.

Which feature is found in both reptiles and birds, showing their evolutionary relationship?

Presence of feathers
Scales on the body
Mammary glands
Three-chambered heart
2

Both reptiles and birds possess scales, which indicates their evolutionary connection.

Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the rate of diffusion of gases in the lungs?

Partial pressure gradient
Membrane thickness
Solubility of gases
Heart rate
4

Heart rate does not directly affect the rate of gas diffusion in the lungs. Factors such as partial pressure gradient, membrane thickness, and gas solubility play a key role.

Which of the following is correct?

Homo sapiens appeared before Homo erectus.
Darwin’s theory emphasizes survival of the fittest through natural selection.
Panspermia suggests life originated from non-living organic molecules on Earth.
Genetic drift is more significant in large populations.
2

Darwin’s theory emphasizes survival of the fittest through natural selection as a key driver of evolution.

Which of the following is a correct feature of reptiles?

They have moist, glandular skin
They excrete ammonia as their primary nitrogenous waste
They lay amniotic eggs
They have a four-chambered heart in all species
3

Reptiles lay amniotic eggs, which provide protection and a stable environment for the developing embryo.

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the secretion of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex?

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
3

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids like cortisol.

Which of the following is incorrect?

Industrial melanism is an example of natural selection.
Homo habilis used tools, earning the name ‘handy man.’
Mutation is the only mechanism of genetic variation.
Adaptive radiation leads to species diversification from a common ancestor.
3

Mutation is one of several mechanisms of genetic variation, including recombination and gene flow.

Which of the following statements about enzyme inhibition is correct?

Competitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme's active site.
Non-competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme.
All inhibitors permanently deactivate enzymes.
Enzyme inhibition cannot be reversed.
1

Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate by binding to the enzyme's active site. Non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere, and some inhibitors are reversible.

Which test is commonly used to assess ovarian reserve in women?

Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) measurement
Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
Semen analysis
Thyroid function test
1

Serum FSH levels, particularly measured on day 3 of the menstrual cycle, are commonly used to assess ovarian reserve.

Which law in India addresses issues of biopiracy and patenting?

Indian Biodiversity Act
Indian Patents Bill
Environment Protection Act
Wildlife Protection Act
2

The Indian Patents Bill addresses biopiracy and ensures fair compensation and protection of traditional knowledge.

Which term refers to genetically modified animals used to study human diseases?

Hybrid animals
Transgenic animals
Cloned animals
Germline mutants
2

Transgenic animals are genetically modified to study human diseases and test new treatments.

Which enzyme is responsible for forming phosphodiester bonds between DNA fragments?

DNA polymerase
Ligase
Endonuclease
Helicase
2

Ligase is responsible for forming phosphodiester bonds between DNA fragments during recombinant DNA formation.

Which of the following is a high-energy molecule involved in cellular metabolism?

AMP
ADP
ATP
NADP
3

ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the primary energy carrier in cells, used in metabolic processes.

Which technique is used to deliver foreign genes into animal cells using fine glass needles?

Electroporation
Microinjection
Lipofection
Gene gun
2

Microinjection involves delivering foreign genes into animal cells using fine glass needles under a microscope.

Which condition is characterized by progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles due to genetic factors?

Myasthenia gravis
Muscular dystrophy
Arthritis
Osteoporosis
2

Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder leading to the weakening and degeneration of skeletal muscles.

Which medication is commonly used to induce ovulation in women with infertility due to anovulation?

Clomiphene citrate
Bromocriptine
Letrozole
Metformin
1

Clomiphene citrate is widely used to induce ovulation in women with anovulatory infertility, particularly in PCOS.

Which hormone is secreted in response to low blood sugar levels?

Insulin
Glucagon
Aldosterone
TSH
2

Glucagon is secreted by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar levels, promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

What is the primary function of ribonucleic acid (RNA)?

Genetic information storage
Catalysis of biochemical reactions
Transporting genetic information for protein synthesis
Providing structural support to the cell
3

RNA primarily functions in protein synthesis by carrying genetic instructions from DNA.

Which of the following statements about inflammation is incorrect?

Inflammation increases blood flow to the affected area.
Inflammation helps in immune defense.
Inflammation is not part of the immune response.
Inflammation can lead to swelling and redness.
3

Inflammation is a key part of the immune response, helping to eliminate pathogens and repair tissue damage.

Which structure in the nephron is responsible for filtering blood plasma?

Loop of Henle
Bowman’s capsule
Collecting duct
Distal convoluted tubule
2

Bowman’s capsule, along with the glomerulus, filters blood plasma to form the initial filtrate.

Performance Summary

Subject Correct
Answers		 Incorrect
Answers		 Attempted Skipped Accuracy
Physics
Chemistry
Botany
Zoology

Overall Score

Score: / 720

Category Details
Total Attempts: / 180
Total Skipped: / 180
Total Wrong Answers:
Total Correct Answers:
Time Taken:
Average Time Taken per Question:
0
180